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UMass922
December 16th, 2006, 11:49 AM
Is it proper to retroactively apply the FCS/Division I Football Championship labels to the years 1978-2005? Should the champions from those years now be referred to simply as Division I champions, or will they forever be known as I-AA champions? Anyone know what the NCAA's official stance on this is?

BlueHen86
December 16th, 2006, 12:12 PM
I'm sticking with I-AA when talking about the past. It will be interesting to see how the NCAA handles this.
I have another question: How long until the NCAA sells the subdivision name to corporate sponsors? Instead of FCS and BCS subdivisions they could sell the naming rights.
Someday Delaware could be the UPS FCS champion!

UNHWildCats
December 16th, 2006, 12:12 PM
My opinion is when recognized they will be known from the new name, just as is the case with NASCAR recognizing all past champions as Nextel Cup champs.

BlueHen86
December 16th, 2006, 12:23 PM
My opinion is when recognized they will be known from the new name, just as is the case with NASCAR recognizing all past champions as Nextel Cup champs.
I forgot about that, I think you are right.
Although I still call it Winston Cup sometimes.:o

PantherRob82
December 16th, 2006, 01:16 PM
I forgot about that, I think you are right.
Although I still call it Winston Cup sometimes.:o

The sad part is that you even talk about it. xlolx

Saint3333
December 16th, 2006, 03:58 PM
Is it proper to retroactively apply the FCS/Division I Football Championship labels to the years 1978-2005? Should the champions from those years now be referred to simply as Division I champions, or will they forever be known as I-AA champions? Anyone know what the NCAA's official stance on this is?

Doesn't matter to me we've got one of each:thumbsup: .